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Topic 2ADomain 2 · Predictive, plan-based methods · 17% of the outline (2023 ECO)

Predictive methods on the CAPM: process groups, quality and integration

Plan-based questions on the CAPM® ask two things: whether a predictive approach suits the situation at all, and how its quality, integration and change machinery works once it is chosen. Waterfall project management is the everyday name for that approach: scope, schedule and cost are settled early, phases run in sequence, and changes go through formal control. Domain II, Predictive, Plan-Based Methodologies, carries 17% of the exam (2023 CAPM Examination Content Outline, checked October 30, 2026); this page covers Task 2.1 and the quality and integration enablers of Task 2.2.

Reviewed October 30, 2026

The five process groups

01Initiating02Planning03Executing04Monitoring andControlling05Closing
The process groups as set out in Process Groups: A Practice Guide (2022), one of the outline’s references. Monitoring and controlling runs alongside the others from start to finish.
  • 01 authorize
  • 02 baseline
  • 03 do the work
  • 04 throughout
  • 05 accept, hand over

When predictive is the right call

Predictive fits when the requirements are known and stable, when late change is expensive, and when someone outside the team needs documents and sign-offs at set points. A data-center move with one fixed cutover weekend is a good example; discovering the network design by iteration at 2 a.m. on Sunday is not a plan anyone signs.

The outline also asks about fit with the organization’s structure: virtual, colocated, matrix or hierarchical. Hierarchical organizations with clear approval lines tend to run plan-based work comfortably; a dispersed virtual team can too, provided the plan and its communication rules are written down. The adaptive side of the same judgment is on agile fit and frameworks.

Integration and change control

Integration is the project manager’s job of keeping the pieces consistent: one plan, one set of baselines, one route for changes. Integrated change control means a change request is analyzed for its effect on scope, schedule, cost and quality together, then approved or rejected by whoever holds that authority, often a change control board. Scope creep is what happens when that route is skipped.

Buying instead of building

On this site the procurement cards stay at the document level. A request for information gathers background on what sellers can do; a request for quotation asks for a price on something already well defined; a request for proposal asks sellers how they would do the work. The schedule built from all of this continues on WBS and critical path.

Quality vocabulary

The three quality processes and two terms that get swapped

TermQuestion it answersTypical result
Plan Quality ManagementWhat standards apply and how will we show we met them?Quality management plan and quality metrics
Manage QualityAre we following the processes that should produce quality?Process improvements, quality reports
Control QualityDoes this deliverable meet its requirements?Measurements and deliverables that passed inspection
Quality vs gradeDoes it meet requirements, versus what category of features does it have?Low grade can be acceptable; low quality is a problem
Cost of qualityWhat is spent on conformance and on failure?Prevention and appraisal costs set against internal and external failure costs

Plan-based scenarios

Approach selection, quality processes and procurement paperwork, each with a note on every option.

Practice cards here are written for study, not taken from PMI. The real CAPM mixes multiple choice with drag-and-drop, hot spot, comic-strip and video items.

Card 01 of 22 · 0 done · 0 right

To do 22

Doing

Card 01 of 22

A new team member asks which quality standards apply to the project’s deliverables and who is responsible for inspections. Which document should the project manager point to?

  1. Note on A

    Quality control measurements are results of inspections, not the definition of standards and responsibilities.

  2. Note on B

    Quality metrics define specific attributes to measure, but not the overall standards and who performs inspections.

  3. Note on C

    Checklists help verify steps were done but do not set out standards and roles.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: The quality management plan describes the applicable standards, quality roles and responsibilities, and how quality will be managed and controlled.

Card 02 of 22

A pharmaceutical company is running a predictive project to launch a new regulated product. National regulations require documented stage-gate approvals before each phase may begin, and external auditors will review all control records. Which control mechanisms best ensure compliance with these regulatory constraints?

  1. Note on A

    Earned value alone does not provide the stage-gate approvals or change records that regulators require.

  2. Note on B

    Rolling wave planning and backlog refinement suit evolving scope, not documented gate approvals for every phase.

  3. Note on C

    Kanban and incremental filings do not provide the gated, auditable control the regulation demands.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: Baselines, variance analysis, and formal change control create documented, auditable control of the plan, which is what stage gates and auditors require.

Card 03 of 22

You are coordinating a technology project and need to select an IT service provider. You have outlined the required services and are now focusing on service quality and experience rather than cost. What is the most suitable bid document to request detailed proposals from potential vendors?

  1. Note on A

    Correct: A request for proposal asks vendors to describe how they will meet the need, which suits selection based on quality and experience rather than price alone.

  2. Note on B

    A request for quote focuses on price for clearly specified goods or services.

  3. Note on C

    An invitation for bid is used when price is the main deciding factor.

  4. Note on D

    A request for information gathers general information about vendors’ capabilities and does not ask for detailed proposals.

Card 04 of 22

To set quality targets, a project manager compares the project’s planned defect rates with those achieved by leading companies in the industry. Which technique is this?

  1. Note on A

    Statistical sampling inspects a portion of a population to judge quality, not to compare against other companies.

  2. Note on B

    Trend analysis looks at performance over time, not against external organizations.

  3. Note on C

    Correct: Benchmarking compares planned or actual practices and results with those of comparable or leading organizations to set targets.

  4. Note on D

    Root cause analysis finds the cause of a problem; it does not set targets by comparison.

Card 05 of 22

On a predictive project, a new regulation will change features in a release that is part of the approved baseline. What should the project manager do FIRST?

  1. Note on A

    Correct: On a predictive project, the first step is to analyze the regulation’s impact and submit a change request for integrated change control.

  2. Note on B

    A mandatory regulatory change cannot simply be rejected because the baseline is approved; it goes through change control.

  3. Note on C

    Updating the schedule before the change is approved bypasses change control.

  4. Note on D

    Absorbing new work into reserves without approval hides a scope change from governance.

Card 06 of 22

A project needs a quality audit to check whether its processes comply with organizational policies. Who should BEST perform the audit?

  1. Note on A

    The people who did the work are not independent and cannot objectively audit their own process.

  2. Note on B

    Correct: A quality audit should be done by an independent party, such as an internal audit team, so the findings are objective.

  3. Note on C

    Customers may review deliverables, but checking compliance with internal policies is not their role.

  4. Note on D

    The project manager is responsible for the processes being audited and is not independent.

Card 07 of 22

Before development starts, a software team decides which types of tests will be run, how often, and which performance benchmarks the product must meet. Which process is the team performing?

  1. Note on A

    Correct: Deciding which tests to run, how often, and what standards the product must meet is planning how quality will be managed.

  2. Note on B

    Monitoring and controlling project work tracks overall performance, not the definition of quality standards and tests.

  3. Note on C

    Managing quality turns the plan into executable quality activities and checks processes during the work; here the work has not started.

  4. Note on D

    Controlling quality inspects and tests results during and after the work, not before development starts.

Card 08 of 22

During a requirements review, a business analyst finds that a developer built an extra report that no stakeholder requested, to impress the customer. What is this an example of?

  1. Note on A

    A workaround is an unplanned response to a problem, not extra work added on purpose.

  2. Note on B

    Scope creep is uncontrolled growth, usually from stakeholder requests, but here nobody asked for the report.

  3. Note on C

    Progressive elaboration means adding detail to the plan as more is learned, not building unrequested features.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: Adding extra features nobody asked for, to impress the customer, is gold plating.

Card 09 of 22

A vendor asks the project manager to sign a contract amendment that adds scope and raises the contract value. Company policy reserves contract changes to the procurement office. What should the project manager do?

  1. Note on A

    Contracts can be changed through the agreed process; outright rejection ignores the possible value of the change.

  2. Note on B

    Letting the vendor start before approval creates unauthorized work and possible claims.

  3. Note on C

    Signing it oversteps the policy that reserves contract changes to the procurement office.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: The change should be assessed through change control and processed by the procurement office, which holds authority to amend contracts.

Card 10 of 22

A pharmaceutical manufacturer must deliver a validated labeling system that satisfies a fixed regulatory submission deadline. The scope, acceptance criteria, and documentation requirements are fully defined by the regulator, and any change after submission requires a formal re-approval that can take months. The delivery team, which has strong agile experience, has asked to run the work in two-week sprints. Which development approach should the project manager select?

  1. Note on A

    Splitting modules into releases adds little when the full scope must be submitted and approved by a fixed date.

  2. Note on B

    Adaptive sprints and feedback assume evolving requirements, but here the regulator has fixed them and any change is costly.

  3. Note on C

    Correct: With scope, acceptance criteria, and documentation fully defined and changes requiring lengthy re-approval, a predictive approach with formal change control fits best.

  4. Note on D

    A hybrid adds iteration overhead without benefit when there is nothing left to discover; team preference does not drive the choice.

Card 11 of 22

An organization strongly favors agile methodologies for all projects. A new project has highly stable requirements and strict regulatory compliance needs. Which approach should the project manager recommend?

  1. Note on A

    Organizational preference and popularity do not make agile fit a project with stable requirements and strict compliance.

  2. Note on B

    Correct: Stable requirements and strict regulatory needs favor a predictive approach with sequential planning and documented control.

  3. Note on C

    Flexibility for unexpected change has little value when requirements are stable.

  4. Note on D

    A hybrid should be chosen to fit project attributes, not as a default.

Card 12 of 22

After objective scoring, two stakeholder groups still disagree about which scope to drop from the next release, and neither will concede any ground. The scoring criteria and trace links are agreed and complete, and the analyst has already facilitated two sessions on the trade-off. What should the business analyst do next?

  1. Note on A

    An informal decision documented afterward skips the formal authority and record that a scope trade-off needs.

  2. Note on B

    The analyst facilitates the decision but does not have the authority to impose it on deadlocked stakeholders.

  3. Note on C

    Postponing leaves the release scope undefined and does not resolve the conflict.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: When facilitation has not produced agreement, the scope trade-off goes to the change control board, which has the authority to decide.

Card 13 of 22

On a predictive project, which output of Control Quality is passed to Validate Scope for customer review?

  1. Note on A

    Quality audit reports come from checking processes, not from inspecting deliverables.

  2. Note on B

    Accepted deliverables are the result of the customer’s review, not the input to it.

  3. Note on C

    Correct: Deliverables that pass internal inspection become verified deliverables, which then go to the customer for formal acceptance.

  4. Note on D

    Approved change requests are decisions on changes, not deliverables ready for customer review.

Card 14 of 22

A regional director who controls a large share of the project’s funding asks the project manager to add two reporting dashboards to the current release without extending the timeline or adding resources. The project manager has assessed the request and knows it will delay two committed deliverables. What should the project manager do?

  1. Note on A

    Absorbing the work through overtime hides the real impact and puts committed deliverables and the team at risk.

  2. Note on B

    Correct: The project manager should make the trade-offs visible by presenting the impact and options, so the director can decide with full information.

  3. Note on C

    Letting the team drop committed deliverables on its own moves a stakeholder decision to the team without the director knowing the impact.

  4. Note on D

    Change control exists to assess and decide on changes, not to prohibit them; a flat refusal ignores the director’s need.

Card 15 of 22

A defect in a new appliance is discovered by customers after delivery, and the company pays for warranty repairs. Which cost of quality category is this?

  1. Note on A

    Correct: Defects found by customers after delivery, along with warranty repairs, are external failure costs.

  2. Note on B

    Prevention costs are spent to stop defects from occurring, such as training, not to fix them afterward.

  3. Note on C

    Appraisal costs pay for inspection and testing to find defects before delivery.

  4. Note on D

    Internal failure costs arise when defects are found before the product reaches the customer.

Card 16 of 22

An influential stakeholder asks the project manager to add a small out-of-scope feature verbally, saying it is urgent. What should the project manager do?

  1. Note on A

    Out-of-scope requests can still be approved through change control, so declining outright ignores a legitimate path.

  2. Note on B

    Correct: The verbal request should go through the change control process so its impact is assessed and a decision is made before any work starts.

  3. Note on C

    An informal estimate is not a decision; the request still needs formal evaluation and approval.

  4. Note on D

    Doing the work quietly is an unauthorized scope change and undermines transparency.

Card 17 of 22

Sarah must decide whether her team should run the project’s servers itself or procure hosting from an external cloud provider, weighing cost, capability and risk. Which technique is she applying?

  1. Note on A

    Sensitivity analysis tests how much outcomes change when one variable changes; it does not decide between doing work in-house or buying it.

  2. Note on B

    Source selection analysis compares vendors once the decision to buy has been made.

  3. Note on C

    Assumption and constraint analysis checks the validity of project assumptions and limits, not whether to build or buy.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: Make-or-buy analysis weighs cost, capability, and risk to decide whether to do the work internally or procure it externally.

Card 18 of 22

A vendor insists on a fixed-price contract with detailed, upfront requirements and formal change control, while the project team intends to deliver value iteratively with frequent customer feedback. What is the most appropriate course of action for the project manager?

  1. Note on A

    Correct: When the contract fixes scope and requires formal change control, the project manager should apply predictive controls to that mandated scope.

  2. Note on B

    Forcing the vendor to absorb all changes is not a fair or realistic contract position and does not address how the work is managed.

  3. Note on C

    Rejecting the contract ignores the constraint rather than working within it.

  4. Note on D

    Relabeling fixed requirements as user stories does not change the contractual need for upfront scope and formal change control.

Card 19 of 22

A control chart shows seven consecutive measurements above the mean, all within the control limits. What should the project team do?

  1. Note on A

    Points within control limits do not mean the units are defective, so rejecting all of them is not justified.

  2. Note on B

    Seven consecutive points on one side of the mean is a non-random pattern, so it needs attention even inside the limits.

  3. Note on C

    Widening the limits to hide a signal ignores a possible change in the process.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: A run of seven points on one side of the mean suggests a special cause, so the team investigates even though no point is out of limits.

Card 20 of 22

To reduce defects on a software product, the team pays for developer training and adds peer design reviews before any code is written. Which cost of quality category do these expenses fall under?

  1. Note on A

    External failure costs come from defects found after delivery, such as warranty work.

  2. Note on B

    Internal failure costs come from defects found before delivery, such as rework.

  3. Note on C

    Correct: Training and early design reviews are spent to stop defects from being created, which makes them prevention costs.

  4. Note on D

    Appraisal costs pay for inspection and testing of work that already exists, not for activities that prevent defects.

Card 21 of 22

A quality team audits whether a project is following the organization’s testing procedures and recommends improvements to how the testing is done. Which process is this?

  1. Note on A

    Control Quality inspects deliverables against requirements; it does not audit how the testing process is followed.

  2. Note on B

    Plan Quality Management sets standards and procedures before the work starts; here the work is already under way.

  3. Note on C

    Validate Scope obtains formal customer acceptance of deliverables, not a review of testing procedures.

  4. Note on D

    Correct: Auditing whether procedures are followed and recommending process improvements is part of managing quality.

Card 22 of 22

Testing finds a defect in a deliverable, and the team reworks it as the quality management plan requires. What should happen NEXT?

  1. Note on A

    A developer’s word is not verification; the fix must be checked before the defect is closed.

  2. Note on B

    Correct: Reworked deliverables must be inspected again to confirm the defect has been corrected before moving on.

  3. Note on C

    A process audit may be useful later, but the reworked deliverable itself must be checked first.

  4. Note on D

    The customer should receive only deliverables that have been verified, so re-inspection must come first.

Done 0

    The CAPM practice app

    The app is on iPhone and iPad. On Android or a laptop, the practice board on this site is the free option.